Transferring Inheritance Away From Yishmael

[Avrohom Adler]

Shmuel said to Rav Yehudah (Kesuvos 53a): “Smart one! Do not be present when an inheritance is being transferred (away from the rightful heir) even when it is from a bad son to a good son, because one never knows what offspring will come forth from him (the bad son) and certainly when the transfer is from a son to a daughter (even though the transfer is valid, it should not be condoned).”

It is written in Parshas Chaye Sarah [24:10]: And the servant took ten camels of his master's camels, and he went, and all the best of his master was in his hand. Rashi comments that Avraham wrote a gift deed to Yitzchak for everything he owned, so that they would hasten to send him their daughter.

The Daas Zkeinim asks: The Gemora in Eruvin states that Avraham fulfilled the entire Torah including the Rabbinical obligations, such as eruv tavshilin. How could Avraham transgress this prohibition of transferring the inheritance away from the rightful heir; Yishmael and the sons of Keturah should have been the inheritors?

The Mizrachi answers: Avraham was permitted to do this because he was told by Hashem [Breishis, 21:12]: For in Yitzchak will be called your offspring.

The Maharal in Gur Aryeh answers: It was permitted because Sarah had told Avraham [ibid, v. 10]: For the son of this handmaid shall not inherit with my son, with Yitzchak. Sdei Chemed explains: Would Avraham heed Sarah’s words and violate a Rabbinical prohibition? Rather, the explanation is as follows: Since Hashem agreed with Sarah and He told Avraham [ibid, v. 12]: Whatever Sarah tells you, hearken to her voice, Avraham was given permission to transfer all his possessions to Yitzchak.

The Yefeh Toar answers that there is no transgression whatsoever when a father gives his possessions away during his lifetime; the prohibition is only when he transfers his property immediately prior to his death.

Maharsha (Sanhedrin 91a) answers: Yishmael and the children of Keturah were not fit to inherit Avraham. This is because Yishmael was the son of a slavewoman and Keturah was a pilegesh, and not an ordinary wife.

Rav Elyashiv challenges this explanation: Yishmael is referred to in the Torah as Avraham’s son; how can the Maharsha say that he was not an actual son?

The Oholei Yitzchak answers the original question: Our Gemora explains the rationale for this prohibition. One should not transfer an inheritance away from the rightful heir even when it is from a bad son to a good son, because one never knows what offspring will come forth from him (the bad son). Avraham knew through ruach hakodesh that no good offspring will ever come out from Yishmael, and therefore, there is no prohibition to give all his possessions to Yitzchak.

Similarly, the Chasam Sofer explains the verse in this week’s parsha. It is written [ibid, 21:11]: But the matter greatly displeased Abraham, concerning his son. Rashi explains literally: Avraham was displeased because Sarah told him to send Yishmael away. The Chasam Sofer explains: Avraham didn’t want to send him away because he was concerned on the account of this prohibition. How could he chase Yishmael away and give all his possessions to Yitzchak if Yishmael is the rightful heir, and perhaps, Yishmael will have some good offspring. Sarah saw through ruach hakodesh that there will be no good offspring coming from Yishmael, and Hashem told Avraham to listen to the words of Sarah.

[Sarah]

Why do you think HaShem ALLOWED Sarah to offer Keturah to Avraham for the purpose of having a child. Surely HaShem could have prevented this from happening - knowing what the out come would be. This was not the plan that HaShem told to Avraham.

If Sarah saw through the ruach hakodesh that there would be no good offspring coming from Yishmael then why did the rach hadodesh not warn her against taking matters into her own hands(having the child by Keturah in the first place) which was contrary to what Avraham had been told?

Respectfully, why didn't HaShem tell Avraham NOT to listen to Sarah's voice when she told Avraham to take keturah for the purpose of having a child - as HaShem told Sarah through the ruach hadokesh to send Yismael away? Of course Avraham could have been prevented from being with Keturah (by HaShem) in the first place regardless of the decision made by Sarah. Why did this not happen - or why did it happen this way - or is the answer, only HaShem knows for sure?

Patience please - Sarah

[Avrohom Adler]

Thank you;

I will try to respond after Shabbos.

Have a good Shabbos,

Avrom

[Ben]

I found Tana Divei Eliyahu (27) that states that in the merit of Sara offering Hagar to Avraham we were redeemed from Egypt. Furthermore, the Kuzari (and Akeidas Yitzchak) writes that Yishmael being born cleared the way for Yitzchak to be born in holiness.

[Sarah]

Thank you for responding Ben,
I read what you are saying but it would be helpful, to this less than mature understanding that I have, for this reply to be expounded upon further...regarding Yishmael clearing the way for Yitzchak to be born in holiness, I don't understand the reasoning - who's unholiness did Yishmael remove? Or who's unholiness was cleared that Yitzchak be born in holiness. Had Yishmael not been born would there have been unholiness to be dealt with by Yitzchak? Respectfully, Sarah - Good Shabbat

Or am I just totaly off track all together??

[Ben]

Sarah, the Rishonim understand that Avraham and Yitzchak had within them an element of spoilage, so to speak, that had to be removed so they would be completely holy. This spoilage was only removed by bringing a wicked person into the world. Thus, Avraham had to have Yishmael and Yitzchak had to have Esav. In this way Yaakov was born perfect and did not require this cleansing process. This is found in the beginning of the Sefer HaKuzari, and if you read the English translation, it should be helpful.

Reb Ben